Question for the flist-mind

[thismaz]

Dear flist,

I think, for once, this is a question directed more towards the Brits on my flist.

The word 'alright'.

Is that an acceptable spelling?

Or would you always spell it as two words?

Would you feel differently, depending on whether you were writing narrative or dialogue?

Any and all opinion welcome.

*hugs wonderful flist-mind*

Comments

[smwright.livejournal.com]

The only time 'alright' has come up on LJ that I've seen is when an American person on my flist used it and a Brit reacted negatively to the use. :)

You know how much I enjoy these discussions, right?

[thismaz.livejournal.com]

Yes, I know. As do I.

In fact, looking at the responses I've had, I now think it is a Northern British word. If your objector is a Southerner, that would support the theory.

[smwright.livejournal.com]

I hadn't thought of that, but anecdotally, it may make sense. I am a Southerner of course. I didn't tell you, but I asked Mike, "'All right'... one word or two?" And he replied, "Both. 'All right' is 'everything is correct' and 'alright' is 'everything is okay.'" I poo-pooed that. *laughs* Told him that 'all right' was two words... and he is Northern.

All of which raises yet another linguistic point, darling. Can there even be Northern and Southern preferences for the English language in different countries? That is, can Northern Americans and Northern Brits agree that 'alright' is one word and Southern Americans and Southern Brits agree that it is always one word? Fascinating.

[thismaz.livejournal.com]

I'm with Mike on the definitions. That is exactly how I would define the difference between the two forms.

*laughs* I have this wonderful image of immigrants following the latitude lines across the Atlantic, as they journey to their new home. I wonder if it would have to be reversed for immigrants to Australia and New Zealand. (Southerners do talk about the 'Deep North', in Australia, but that is more of a caricaturing reference to cultural attitudes, rather than a recognition of any linguistic divide.)

[smwright.livejournal.com]

This is so fascinating. Now I have to know! We have to come up with a laundry list of potential geographic differences within our countries and see if they are the same between our countries. :P

[thismaz.livejournal.com]

When the UK has a land mass equal to approximately 2% of the US and is about the same distance North to South (including the Shetlands) as California, there would have to be quite a bit of stretching. So, maybe, not following the latitude lines, so much as fanning out across the Atlantic *g*

[smwright.livejournal.com]

Very good point. Mike is cognition/linguistically inclined. I'll have to chat with him about this again.

[thismaz.livejournal.com]

Somehow, I think where the original British immigrants settled (and therefore where specific accents or dialects congregated) would have more to do with the port of origin and the wave of/reason for immigration. I don't know enough about that. I know that settlers were promised land in what is now the southern states and I know that indentured labourers were sent to work that land, but I don't know where they were sent from. As for the northern states, I know even less.